General Diagnoses Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• What is the first-line imaging modality for suspected biliary tract obstruction in stable patients?
• Moderate level includes which activity?
• In a patient presenting with acute chest pain, diaphoresis, and shortness of breath, what is the most appropriate initial diagnostic step?
• In suspected meningitis, if there are signs of raised intracranial pressure or focal deficits, which approach is recommended regarding lumbar puncture?
• What test helps differentiate type 1 from type 2 diabetes in ambiguous cases?
• How can you differentiate biliary colic from acute cholecystitis clinically?
• Which genus is the leading cause of community-acquired meningitis in adults?
• In evaluating suspected peritonitis, which physical exam finding is most indicative?
• Initial test used to screen for diabetic ketoacidosis?
• What is a classic presentation of diabetic ketoacidosis in adults?
• Which secondary space item is explicitly addressed in accessibility planning?
• Which combination of features most strongly suggests temporal arteritis?
• Which statement is NOT a key principle of NDT?
• Which feature is characteristic of toxic shock syndrome?
• Which item is NOT a consideration under Lighting and Visual Accessibility?
• During immobilization, what is the recommended wrist position?
• What finding supports a diagnosis of sciatica?
• When radiation risk is high in pregnancy, which imaging modality may be preferred to evaluate suspected pulmonary embolism?
• How do ferritin levels help differentiate iron deficiency anemia from anemia of chronic disease?
• If labs are unsafe, what should be done?
• In evaluating suspected ectopic pregnancy, which two tests are essential to determine intrauterine location and viability?
• In suspected meningitis, after obtaining blood cultures, what is the most important next step if there are signs of raised intracranial pressure or focal deficits?
• Which imaging modality is more sensitive for suspected endocarditis?
• Which electrolyte abnormality is most commonly associated with a prolonged QT interval and torsades de pointes?
• Which statement best describes the relationship between pre-test probability and post-test probability in diagnostic testing?
• Which factor most increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia?
• The time of highest risk for rupture after surgery is most closely within which window?
• Stage 0 Cancer is defined as which of the following?
• Which sign indicates acute cholecystitis?
• What test is essential when PE is suspected but D-dimer is negative and probability remains high?
• Which tool is commonly used to screen for sepsis and septic shock in non-ICU settings?
• Which item is NOT listed as a consideration for exterior entry and access?
• In a child with suspected appendicitis, which imaging modality is most accurate?
• What is the turning radius specified for accessible turning in interior spaces?
• What sign is classically associated with acute pericarditis?
• Which imaging modality is preferred to assess acute trauma with suspected cervical spine injury?
• Which imaging test is most sensitive for suspected infective endocarditis?
• Which test combination is most appropriate for assessing pregnancy location and viability?
• Prerenal azotemia in hospitalized patients is most often due to which mechanism?
• Which statement is true regarding NDT's focus on movement?
• In suspected PE with moderate probability, what test can help rule out PE in low probability scenarios?
• How does disease prevalence affect the predictive value of a diagnostic test?
• Which feature is explicitly included in aging in place concepts related to stairs?
• What finding is most specific for appendicitis?
• What initial laboratory test has the highest yield for suspected acute myocardial infarction in the first 6 hours after onset?
• If initial ECG and troponins are nondiagnostic but ACS remains likely, what is the next step?
• In adult oncology, what is a typical focus of care?
• A 64-year-old man presents with chest pain for 25 minutes, diaphoresis, and shortness of breath. What is the most appropriate immediate management step?
• Which diagnosis is NOT listed as a target for Neurodevelopmental Treatment in the material?
• Which statement best describes the Biomechanical approach?
• In suspected nephrolithiasis presenting with acute flank pain and hematuria, which imaging test is typically first-line?
• Phase 1 immobilization lasts approximately how many days?
• Which lab pattern is most consistent with thyroid storm?
• Jersey Finger is best described as?
• What is a key distinguishing feature of tension-type headache compared with migraine?
• What is the second biggest complication of flexor tendon injuries?
• In pediatric oncology, which statement best describes a child's primary occupation?
• In suspected pregnancy of unknown location, what is the critical initial assessment?
• What distinguishes migraine from tension-type headache?
• What clinical finding is most closely associated with chronic hypoxemia from lung disease?
• Phase 2 therapy duration extends from which time to which?
• Which statement best describes the progression of Functional Activity Levels from light to heavy?
• Which is a common precaution in cancer care?
• What is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in adults?
• In differentiating asthma versus COPD in a patient with chronic cough and wheeze, which history feature most strongly suggests COPD?
• Which serology is most specific for celiac disease?
• Which statement about the Fair Housing Act is true?
• Stage IV Cancer is defined by which characteristic?
• What is the gold-standard diagnostic test for peptic ulcer disease?
• What distinguishes Type 1 from Type 2 respiratory failure?
• In suspected stroke, which imaging test is used first to assess for hemorrhage?
• Return to Function Phase 4 includes which objective?
• Which safety planning item ensures evacuation capability?
• Which feature most strongly suggests acute cholecystitis over biliary colic?
• Do homeowners have to follow ADA or FHA?
• What does a positive D-dimer test indicate?
• Which zone of the flexor tendon system is commonly known as No-Man's-Land?
• Which item is NOT listed as a consideration for doorways and interior mobility?
• Handling Techniques involve which primary method?
• What histology confirms celiac disease after a positive tissue transglutaminase antibody test?
• Which statement about the interpretation of a positive D-dimer in thromboembolism evaluation is true?
• Most common cause of acute kidney injury in hospitalized patients?
• Which statement describes proximal-to-distal control in NDT?
• Which signs are typical of meningitis?
• Zone 2 is located between which landmarks?
• If ultrasound is inconclusive for appendicitis in pregnancy, what is the next recommended imaging?
• In suspected thyroid dysfunction, which test is first-line?
• Which of the following best defines fever of unknown origin (FUO) in adults?
• Elevation of cardiac troponin I or T above which percentile indicates myocardial injury?
• If ultrasound is nondiagnostic in pediatric suspected appendicitis, what is the next imaging step?
• Which of the following is NOT a contributing factor to risk of complications after surgery?
• In acute chest pain with suspected ACS but nondiagnostic ECG, which scoring system helps risk-stratify?
• Post-antibiotic sputum cultures should be interpreted how?
• The most common cause of community-acquired meningitis in adults belongs to which genus?
• Which items are typically monitored for cancer patients?
• Which organism is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in adults?
• Ferritin levels differentiate anemia types; ferritin is typically normal or elevated in which anemia?
• Which term is part of the Cancer Care Continuum sequence?
• Stage III Cancer is characterized by which of the following?
• In suspected biliary pancreatitis, which laboratory finding is most informative?
• What is the first-line imaging for suspected pneumonia in a non-acute setting?
• A red flag for spinal infection or malignancy in neck pain?
• In kitchen accessibility and IADL performance, which feature most directly affects a person’s ability to access work surfaces?
• Which option best reflects the first-priority action in resuscitating a patient with suspected sepsis?
• In pediatric oncology, care is described as which?
• Thunderclap headache raises concern for which diagnosis?
• Most common mechanism of flexor tendon injuries is?
• In hypertensive emergency, what is the initial target for mean arterial pressure (MAP) reduction?
• What is the initial step in evaluating a patient with suspected anaphylaxis?
• A major red flag in neck pain suggesting possible spinal infection or malignancy?
• How can you distinguish cellulitis from necrotizing fasciitis clinically?
• TIMI and GRACE are risk stratification tools used to assess risk in which condition?
• If CT head is negative but SAH is still suspected, what is the next diagnostic step?
• If non-contrast CT head is negative in suspected subarachnoid hemorrhage, what is the next best diagnostic step?
• What test is most useful for diagnosing thyroid storm or myxedema crisis in a patient with altered mental status and tachycardia?
• In pediatric oncology, which statement about school is emphasized?
• What is the primary goal of inhibition of abnormal movement in NDT?
• In spirometry, which finding confirms obstructive airway disease?
• Which imaging option is acceptable when evaluating suspected PE with high probability, and D-dimer is negative?
• Which description best fits Task-Specific Training?
• Which scoring system is used to estimate pretest probability of pulmonary embolism?
• Which doorway width is acceptable but not the minimum for accessibility?
• Which scoring system is commonly used to estimate 30-day risk in chest pain patients presenting to the emergency department?
• Which doorway width is the minimum requirement for accessibility?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a consideration for interior mobility and doorways?
• Which biomarker helps distinguish cardiac-related edema from nephrotic-range edema?
• In safety and emergency planning, which item is explicitly addressed to ensure preparedness?
• Which signs are typical of meningitis?
• What imaging modality most specifically confirms biliary tract obstruction and allows therapeutic intervention?
• Which vasodilator is commonly used in acute decompensated heart failure when blood pressure allows?
• In suspected deep vein thrombosis, what is the first-line diagnostic test?
• How do you differentiate ischemic from hemorrhagic stroke on initial evaluation?
• Place-and-hold exercises are part of which rehabilitation phase?
• Which of the following is a common mechanism of flexor tendon injuries?
• What is the most common complication of flexor tendon injuries?
• In kitchen accessibility and IADL performance, which factor directly relates to evaluating IADL performance in the kitchen?
• In safety and emergency planning, which item ensures access to help in an emergency?
• What radiographic finding is most suggestive of aspiration pneumonia?
• In acute scrotal pain, which findings are most suggestive of testicular torsion?
• Which symptom combination is most indicative of pyelonephritis rather than cystitis?
• What clinical feature is most characteristic of mesenteric ischemia?
• Which statement most accurately reflects Handling Techniques?
• In ACS, which cardiac biomarker confirms myocardial injury?
• In a child with suspected appendicitis, which imaging modality is most accurate?
• Which statement about imaging in suspected appendicitis in children is NOT accurate?
• Which principle describes guiding movement at proximal points to facilitate distal movement?
• Facilitation of Normal Movement is achieved through what therapist action?
• Initial ED management for acute decompensated heart failure?
• Which history factor most increases pretest probability of acute coronary syndrome in chest pain?
• What condition presents with fever and a petechial or purpuric rash plus shock?
• Which statement best describes NDT approaches?
• Which feature most differentiates bacterial sinusitis from viral rhinosinusitis?
• What is the hallmark radiographic finding in congestive heart failure?
• Which movement combo is targeted in Phase 2 that coordinates MCP and IP joints?
• Hepatic encephalopathy commonly presents with which neuromuscular sign?
• What is the hallmark sign of classic congestive heart failure on physical examination?
• Which electrolyte abnormality is most dangerous for cardiac conduction?
• In suspected biliary obstruction, which imaging study is typically used as the initial evaluation in stable patients?
• In sepsis, which vital-sign abnormality is most indicative of shock?
• Stage II Cancer is characterized by which of the following?
• In suspected ACS, which protocol should be activated immediately?
• Which electrolyte disturbance is most commonly associated with torsades de pointes, often occurring with concurrent hypokalemia?
• Which motion is produced by the Flexor Digitorum Profundus?
• Phase 2 rehabilitation is characterized by:
• In suspected acute abdomen during pregnancy, what imaging approach is preferred first?
• Which condition would indicate using NDT?
• STEMI is defined on the ECG by which criterion?
• How should a clinician interpret a positive sputum culture in a patient who has already started antibiotics?
• Which statement is true about ADA in the home context?
• What is the most common organism causing meningitis in adults?
• Which finding supports iron deficiency anemia?
• Which statement differentiates bacterial sinusitis from viral rhinosinusitis?
• Which element from secondary spaces is highlighted as part of accessibility planning for a bedroom?
• What imaging finding supports CHF?
• Which set of symptoms best distinguishes cystitis from pyelonephritis?
• For suspected appendicitis in a pregnant patient, what imaging modality is preferred?
• What is the most common cause of acute kidney injury in hospitalized patients?
• Which description accurately reflects Postural Control?
• In suspected bacterial meningitis, which organism is most common and what is the recommended empiric therapy?
• What is the initial, and most critical, treatment step in anaphylaxis?
• Which pathogen is the most common cause of community-acquired meningitis in adults?
• What is the recommended frequency for Phase 2 home exercises?
• Stage IV Cancer is characterized by which of the following?
• Which lab test is most informative early in suspected sepsis?
• Which activities are characteristic of the heavy level (8+ weeks) in Functional Activity Progression?
• Postural control is described as the foundation of movement focusing on which elements?
• A patient with fever and neck stiffness presents with a new-onset seizure. What is the most appropriate initial diagnostic step?
• What test is used after a positive fingerstick glucose to screen for diabetic ketoacidosis?
• During Phase 3 (weeks 6-8) of rehabilitation, which is a primary objective?
• For evaluating suspected biliary obstruction in a stable patient, which test is most appropriate first?
• Which of the following is a Phase 3 goal?
• Which description best fits a tension-type headache?
• Asterixis (liver flap) is a hallmark sign of hepatic encephalopathy. Which option best names the condition?
• Which lab finding supports acute pancreatitis?
• Which of the following is a classic sign of acute aortic dissection?
• Which physical examination findings are most characteristic of classic congestive heart failure?
• Which statement best describes the sensitivity of echocardiography modalities in endocarditis?
• Which laboratory and imaging pattern is most compatible with biliary pancreatitis?
• In suspected ACS, which medical therapy is commonly given if not contraindicated?
• Which feature differentiates central (UMN) from peripheral (LMN) facial palsy?
• Which red-flag diagnosis must be ruled out first in a patient describing the 'worst headache of my life'?
• Stage 1 Cancer is defined as which of the following?
• Toxic shock syndrome triad includes which combination?
• In pediatric oncology, which statement best describes the approach to care?
• Which of the following is a goal of home modification?
• In suspected meningitis when LP is contraindicated, what imaging modality is recommended prior to LP?
• In transfer surfaces and functional spaces, which factor primarily supports safe transfers between bed and chair?
• What is the classic presentation of nephrolithiasis?
• Which statement best describes imaging for pneumothorax in unstable patients?
• In a patient with acute dyspnea and cough, which initial imaging study most effectively distinguishes pneumonia from congestive heart failure?
• Mechanical thrombectomy in eligible ischemic stroke patients can be considered up to how many hours after onset?
• Neurodevelopmental Treatment (NDT) is best described as which statement?
• Which statement describes motor learning in the context of NDT?
• In adult oncology, which roles should be considered as part of comprehensive care?
• Which symptom is most characteristic of hepatic encephalopathy in a patient with cirrhosis?
• When evaluating suspected pulmonary embolism in pregnancy, which imaging option is preferred if clinically feasible?
• The Americans with Disabilities Act applies to which spaces?
• Which feature most strongly suggests COPD over asthma in a patient with chronic cough and wheeze?
• Which back-pain finding merits urgent imaging?
• Which liver test pattern strongly suggests alcoholic hepatitis?
• In transfer surfaces and functional spaces, which feature relates to chair usage and positioning?
• What is the first priority in resuscitating a patient with sepsis?
• Which biomarker is most useful for detecting myocardial injury within the first 6 hours of chest pain when high-sensitivity troponin is not available?
• In suspected meningitis when LP is contraindicated or delayed, what is the most sensitive initial step?
• Which biomarker is most helpful to differentiate dyspnea etiologies when there is uncertainty between cardiogenic edema and pneumonia?
• Flexor Digitorum Superficialis primarily flexes which joint?
• Toxic shock syndrome is often linked to which cause?
• Cancer-Related Fatigue (CRF) is best described as which?
• During Phase 1 immobilization, which intervention is used?
• What is the recommended time window for IV thrombolysis in eligible ischemic stroke patients?
• In acute trauma with suspected cervical spine injury, which imaging modality gives the best initial assessment?
• A patient presents with pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath after a long flight. Which diagnostic approach should be strongly considered?
• Which of the following is an example of technology and environmental supports used to facilitate independence?
• How does pretest probability relate to the interpretation of a diagnostic test?
• Which statement best describes NDT?
• Which item is NOT listed as a consideration for exterior entry and access?
• Which signs indicate dehydration requiring intravenous fluids in acute gastroenteritis?
• Which clinical features most strongly suggest temporal arteritis?
• What is the gold-standard diagnostic test for evaluating inflammatory bowel disease?
• For adults at higher risk of Listeria meningitis (older or immunocompromised), which antibiotic should be added to empiric meningitis therapy?
• What is the recommended screening test for abdominal aortic aneurysm in men aged 65-75 who have ever smoked?
• Imaging modality preferred for detecting deep venous thrombosis in the leg?
• In a bathroom accessibility assessment, which feature directly affects transfers between the tub or shower and the user?
• Which imaging is most sensitive for detecting pneumothorax in an unstable patient?
• Task-Specific Training emphasizes which of the following?
• Which feature is explicitly associated with aging in place concepts for stairs?
• If abdominal ultrasound in suspected acute abdomen during pregnancy is nondiagnostic, which imaging modality is next?
• CBC finding typical of iron deficiency anemia?
• Functional Activity Progression Level Light (5-6 weeks) includes which task?
• Which condition presents with fever and a petechial or purpuric rash plus shock?
• What is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis in the Western world?
• A patient with polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss, and fatigue with hyperglycemia is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• Phase 2 interventions include which of the following?
• Which statement explains why Zone 2 is particularly important in flexor tendon injuries?
• What is the characteristic electrocardiogram finding in severe hyperkalemia?